Can the level of pleasure derived from music be measured?


This is a real question that I think may have a answer.

With the right probes in a brain can't changes in the pleasure

zone be measured? 

I ask because it seems to me that without this measurement

a true audiophile hierarchy can not be claimed.

Thoughts??

 

 

128x128jeffseight

 I need to add/change the question a bit.

Assuming subject A's pleasure reaction to music can be quantified 

on a 1-100 scale. Call it a "P" rating.

Could subject A's rating have any relativity to Subject Bs rating?

In other words could it be accurately said the A enjoys music 

more than B???

The Semantic concept of Valence measures the positive versus negative connotation of a perceptual experience. Assuming a valid and reliable measurement tool for that concept, you can measure separately for two or more different people experiencing the same music and see if the scores differ. But, the question is, how large would the difference have to be to make a difference? There's always a margin of error involved.