ok, I have the amp set to 8 ohm and the speakers are rated at 8 ohm, but does the fact that I have the Amp/speaker set up vertical(v/s active) biamping change the impedence v/s 1 amp run to both speakers?
I started this when Diewallen inquired about vertically biamping. My rhetorical question was basically "If you use one preamp output through a double terminated (split?) interconnect into multiple amp inputs duplicating the signal into both channels, does it change the impedance the preamp sees enough to affect the outcome?" I didn't know the answer, but thought it might.
David (Diewallen) is this correct, or are you asking something else?
If you split a preamp output into two poweramp inputs then the preamp sees the poweramp load in parallel.
When two equal impedances are put in parallel the resulting impedance is halved.
So running a "Y" type splitter from a preamp to two poweramps will reduce the input impedance seen by the preamp to one half of the input impedance of a single poweramp.
For example if you have two identical poweramps with an input impedance of 40k Ohms, and you connect both of them via a Y type split interconnect to a single preamp output then that preamp output will effectively see a poweramp input impedance of 20k ohms.
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