Impedance????

I started this when Diewallen inquired about vertically biamping. My rhetorical question was basically "If you use one preamp output through a double terminated (split?) interconnect into multiple amp inputs duplicating the signal into both channels, does it change the impedance the preamp sees enough to affect the outcome?" I didn't know the answer, but thought it might.

David (Diewallen) is this correct, or are you asking something else?

Jim S.

I do not understand the question but I doubt if bi-amping changes any loads.

Kal

Yes, that is correct jim, that is what I am asking.

DLEWALLEN

Jim,

If you split a preamp output into two poweramp inputs then the preamp sees the poweramp load in parallel.

When two equal impedances are put in parallel the resulting impedance is halved.

So running a "Y" type splitter from a preamp to two poweramps will reduce the input impedance seen by the preamp to one half of the input impedance of a single poweramp.

For example if you have two identical poweramps with an input impedance of 40k Ohms, and you connect both of them via a Y type split interconnect to a single preamp output then that preamp output will effectively see a poweramp input impedance of 20k ohms.

ok, I have not received the pre-amp i purchased yet(should be here next week) but it is a NAD 1600, I do not know if it has enough out-puts for bi-amping, if I use a "Y" I am changing impedance, So what do I do to biamp?