Stereo amp to drive one center channel speaker?


I'm venturing into surround sound & I have all this equipment laying around. I have a two channel counterpoint amp that I would like to use to drive one speaker.

How do I hook it up?
Any danger of blowing up either the speaker or the amp.
If I use both channels will the impence change & affect the sound?
joeadd
I had an Acurus A150 that I used for my center channel for awhile. I just used one channel (right)input and connected speaker to that side. Don't hook up anything to the unused side.
Should work fine. You may want to consult with the manufacturer first, though.
I use an aragon 8002 for my center channel amp..
It is fed via y connector at the amp end from the center output of the processor... both channels are utilized and
in essence, I am bi-amping my center channel... My center channel, or course allows for bi wire or bi amping...
Good Luck,
Joe
I,like several others "did" the bi-wire/amp.I did this with 5/6 different processors--over 8/9 years.I once had the Fosgate 3a--it had 2 center ch.outs.

I now have a Meridian 565 and for some reason it"hates" to drive a Y. So, I now use just the r.ch./and only bi-wire my AerialCC3. Truth be known,it sounds the same with just 1/2 a stereo amp.
Most modern amps can be played without a speaker connected. But some amps require a load or damage can occur. This is especially true for tube amps. You can put an 8ohn resistor across the unused speaker terminals if you are not sure.
Hi
i have the fosgate 4125 and it is bidge-able it shows the diagram on the back to bridge it,so all amps dont have to have a switch to make it bridge-able,if it dont have a switch or a diagram telling you how to bridge it,than i would say it is not bridge-able
but if it is bridge-able like me mine is and i used 1 of the bridged channels to run my mtx center speaker in briged mode i run the positive with the positive and negitive to the negitive of 1 of the speakers and it seems to work fine