This thread has certainly evolved, as might be expected considering the parties who are participating, into a really excellent dialog.
FWIW I must very respectfully say that at this point I agree with Hifibri and I disagree with Learsfool. I see it as follows: Yes, the FREQUENCIES of all of the harmonics are determined unalterably by the fundamental frequency (i.e., the lowest frequency component) of the note that the musician chooses to play. However, wouldn't the individual AMPLITUDES of each of those harmonics, relative to the amplitudes of the other harmonics and to the amplitude of the fundamental, vary depending on the waveform changes you agree can occur?
If not, what would a spectrum analysis of the waveforms indicate is changing? I doubt that extraneous or spurious frequencies are being introduced, that are not harmonically related to the fundamental. What could be changing, that would account for the waveform changes, other than the relative amplitudes of the harmonics and the fundamental?
And if the waveform changes are in fact in the form of alterations of that harmonic structure/balance, then doesn't it stand to reason that there is a relation between "warmth" and harmonic structure/balance?
I do think it is very much an oversimplification, and a common audiophile misconception, to speak of warmth as just being a frequency response that is non-flat in some way. A mid-bass peak, or some similar frequency response emphasis, might contribute to a subjective perception of warmth. But realistic reproduction of timbre, which as I see it correlates with accurate reproduction of the RELATIVE amplitudes of the harmonics and the fundamental of each note, as well as proper time domain performance and ambience reproduction, I envision as being the keys to the PROPER reproduction of warmth.
Best regards,
-- Al
FWIW I must very respectfully say that at this point I agree with Hifibri and I disagree with Learsfool. I see it as follows: Yes, the FREQUENCIES of all of the harmonics are determined unalterably by the fundamental frequency (i.e., the lowest frequency component) of the note that the musician chooses to play. However, wouldn't the individual AMPLITUDES of each of those harmonics, relative to the amplitudes of the other harmonics and to the amplitude of the fundamental, vary depending on the waveform changes you agree can occur?
If not, what would a spectrum analysis of the waveforms indicate is changing? I doubt that extraneous or spurious frequencies are being introduced, that are not harmonically related to the fundamental. What could be changing, that would account for the waveform changes, other than the relative amplitudes of the harmonics and the fundamental?
And if the waveform changes are in fact in the form of alterations of that harmonic structure/balance, then doesn't it stand to reason that there is a relation between "warmth" and harmonic structure/balance?
I do think it is very much an oversimplification, and a common audiophile misconception, to speak of warmth as just being a frequency response that is non-flat in some way. A mid-bass peak, or some similar frequency response emphasis, might contribute to a subjective perception of warmth. But realistic reproduction of timbre, which as I see it correlates with accurate reproduction of the RELATIVE amplitudes of the harmonics and the fundamental of each note, as well as proper time domain performance and ambience reproduction, I envision as being the keys to the PROPER reproduction of warmth.
Best regards,
-- Al