Preamp inverts phase question:

"[If my preamp inverts and my amp is non inverted then there is no need to correct the phase is that correct?]"

Yes that is correct!

Whether you hear a difference or not. This is the correct way.

Dopogue wrote "( although I have discs where I can pop the vocalist out front with one polarity setting and push him back into the mix with the other)."

It sounds like your system is very revealing and you have ears that can hear it.
Some systems are not and some ears can't.
As I said, one can hear a difference on some recordings, but that is not the primary purpose.

From a technical design stand point having the components properly setup with either Non inverted and inverted or inverted and Non inverted, is the primary affect. The phase of the recording is secondary.

Some designers agree with this, there may be some that don't, who knows. But what ever way works for you, go with that.

"[If my preamp inverts and my amp is non inverted then there is no need to correct the phase is that correct?]"

Yes that is correct!

Whether you hear a difference or not. This is the correct way.

Can you kindly offer either a technical explanation for that claim, or a link that would provide one? I don't see any basis for that claim whatsoever, as I indicated above, and I have never heard such a claim before.

Regards,
-- Al

I'm not a tech, are you?
But I have had it explained to me by a very highly skilled Designer and I don't mean someone into DIY.

As far as a article about: Google is your friend!

Can you kindly offer either a technical explanation saying how I might be incorrect, or a link that would provide one?
I am not talking about, Recording or Speakers!!!

Thanks.

Benie,
I agree with Almarg. If a pre inverts the signal, it takes either a inverting amp or a switching of the speaker cable polarity to correct it (uninvert it). It is similar to the way positives and negatives work in math. A minus times a plus is a minus, and it takes two minuses to make a plus.

I'm not a tech, are you?
But I have had it explained to me by a very highly skilled Designer and I don't mean someone into DIY.

As far as a article about: Google is your friend!

Can you kindly offer either a technical explanation saying how I might be incorrect, or a link that would provide one?
I am not talking about, Recording or Speakers!!!

Since you asked, I have both Bachelor's and Master's Degrees in Electrical Engineering, and more than 30 years experience as an electronics circuit designer and manager (although not in audio). I also have close to 30 years experience as an audiophile, and I am widely read on the subject, including high end publications (TAS, Stereophile, etc.), mainstream publications, the Journal of the Audio Engineering Society, etc.

I have never in all that time encountered the claim you have made, that inverting preamps work best with non-inverting power amps, and vice versa. By that logic, every properly set up system should invert absolute phase/polarity overall. That conflicts with everything that has been written indicating that maintaining absolute phase can be important in some systems with some recordings, to a subtle degree. You can start with the papers that Jea linked to.

I understand that you are not talking about the recording or speakers. You appear to be saying that somehow a preamp/power amp combination will function best together if the combination of the two components is inverting. As I say, in all of my experience that I cited above, I have never encountered such a claim. Likewise, I have never encountered any claim that having a combination that is non-inverting is necessarily better, either, other than the fact that it maintains the polarity of the recording without having to interchange speaker connections. So I don't think that asking me to provide a link that will "prove a negative," so to speak, is quite a fair question. Questions that have no basis tend not to be discussed.

Regards,
-- Al