Preamp inverts phase question:

Benie,

If my preamp inverts and my amp is non inverted then there is no need to correct the phase is that correct?

Adam

If my preamp inverts and my amp is non inverted then there is no need to correct the phase is that correct?

No, that is wrong, and what Benie indicated has no basis as far as I am aware.

Whether the amp and preamp are individually phase inverting or not is of no significance; what matters is the overall system response.

The idea is that the polarity of the source material should be the polarity that is fed to the speakers.

Also, I must say that I am surprised that this thread has produced so much discussion of whether or not absolute phase/polarity makes an audible difference. Just make the system polarity correct, and whether or not polarity makes an audible difference on your system with your recordings then becomes irrelevant.

If it does make a difference, your system will then be optimized for best results on those recordings on which it is likeliest to make a difference (audiophile-caliber, simply mic'd, minimally processed recordings, particularly those containing sharp percussive sounds). If it doesn't make a difference, then nothing will be lost by connecting that way. It's as simple as that.

Regards,
-- Al

"[If my preamp inverts and my amp is non inverted then there is no need to correct the phase is that correct?]"

Yes that is correct!

Whether you hear a difference or not. This is the correct way.

Dopogue wrote "( although I have discs where I can pop the vocalist out front with one polarity setting and push him back into the mix with the other)."

It sounds like your system is very revealing and you have ears that can hear it.
Some systems are not and some ears can't.
As I said, one can hear a difference on some recordings, but that is not the primary purpose.

From a technical design stand point having the components properly setup with either Non inverted and inverted or inverted and Non inverted, is the primary affect. The phase of the recording is secondary.

Some designers agree with this, there may be some that don't, who knows. But what ever way works for you, go with that.

"[If my preamp inverts and my amp is non inverted then there is no need to correct the phase is that correct?]"

Yes that is correct!

Whether you hear a difference or not. This is the correct way.

Can you kindly offer either a technical explanation for that claim, or a link that would provide one? I don't see any basis for that claim whatsoever, as I indicated above, and I have never heard such a claim before.

Regards,
-- Al

I'm not a tech, are you?
But I have had it explained to me by a very highly skilled Designer and I don't mean someone into DIY.

As far as a article about: Google is your friend!

Can you kindly offer either a technical explanation saying how I might be incorrect, or a link that would provide one?
I am not talking about, Recording or Speakers!!!

Thanks.