Speaker Impedance: Resistance and Phase Question


I have enjoyed the learning curve presented by other threads regarding this issue and the issue of Voltage vs. Amperage driven amplifiers. I am not asking that what has been presented in other threads be repeated here.

Does the phase shift of a speaker (resulting in Capacitance) refer to a lag of current behind voltage? Or is this too simple of an explanation?

And to AL, Regards.
mesch

Showing 1 response by bifwynne

Al, I think you touched on my question in your post above about "[t]he phase angle of the impedance of a speaker, at a given frequency, is the angle of the "vector sum" of the magnitudes of the resistive, inductive, and capacitive components of the impedance." But let me try to break this down a little bit.

Let's focus on what a speaker's phase angle might look like at a x-over point. Say for example the x-over point is where the woofer rolls off and the midrange picks up. Would the designer use an inductor in series in the woofer driver to roll off frequencies over a certain point. If so, I would surmise the phase angle might be inductive, or positive.

But at the same time, the designer might want to filter low frequencies from reaching the midrange below a certain point by using a capacitor in series with the midrange driver. Again, I surmise the phase angle might be negative.

So both a inductor and a capacitor might be in the circuit within the same frequency range. How would the interaction of these two passives plot as a phase angle?

P.S. My example is intentionally oversimplified in order to make a point. I suspect that the drivers themselves could be inductive or capacitive at certain frequencies. Plus I also suspect that modern x-overs don't simply insert one passive in series with a driver to achieve the desired roll-offs.

Thanks

Bruce