Has anyone heard the new North American products preamp and amp?

Tbg wrote,

"Mapman, from your speakers all sound waves travel the same speed. From your source and preamp to the amp each stage of amplification passes different speeds, except in Roger’s X-10 MkIII amp."

How does the amp know what the correct relationship of velocities of frequencies within the signal is supposed to be? From what you just said it sounds like the damage has already been done by the time the signal gets to the amplifier. I.e., that the velocities of the frequencies within the signal are already out of synch. Thus, the amplifier - if it is maintaining the "correct velocity" of all frequencies within the signal will simply *keep the already out-of-synch relationship of velocities in tact* whilst amplifying the out-of-synch signal, no?

Obviously there should be no red or blue shift which would indicate some frequencies speeding or slowing up. This must be a monumental problem with other amplifiers as the X-10 Mk III sounds much better than others. I already said this.

But were this true at all amplification points, I'm sure the realistic sound stage would be further improved.

I have said all that I understand about this revolution. Listen for yourself.

I'm was honestly trying to be just a "fly-on-the-wall" here.

I had an opportunity just now to read the white paper. Among other things I could disagree with, one in particular is the assertion that "air medium has no obstacles". Perhaps I am misunderstanding the context or usage, but since we are already splitting hairs, what about the micro-climate (i.e. variable temperature change) that exists in air between the orchestra and listener? What about other sounds ( a person sneezing) that occur or physical "occupation of space" such as a person rising out of their seat? Is that distorting the wave object?

On to the electrical end, is the wave object really effected all that much in today's modern equipment? And if it can be successfully argued that yes, it is, will "correcting" it make any - even the slightest - difference? If yes to that, then what happens when the two speakers (assuming two channels) are not precisely (as in less than 1000th of an inch) aligned and distanced from the listeners ears? Is distortion re-introduced?

I don't think any distortion would be introduced but one might hear it less precise in location.

Tbg wrote,

"I have said all that I understand about this revolution. Listen for yourself."

One more question: once the signal leaves the amplifier it still needs to get to the speakers.  The speaker cables introduce additional velocity differences in the signal since the high frequencies travel closer to the surface of the conductor where the resistance is less, no?