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I do. There are many examples but the most famous is the price of BMWs during the 1980s. In the 1970s and earlier they used ot cost about the same as a Buick; but sales actually increased greatly as prices rose steeply.
I forget what this phenomenon is called ("Inverse something or other") but the BMW example is frequently cited in econ texts.
You could also read Veblin's Theory of the Leisure Class
There are not a few people that will buy something that costs 50K who would not touch exact same item were it priced at 25KDo you have anything that supports this claim?"
I do. There are many examples but the most famous is the price of BMWs during the 1980s. In the 1970s and earlier they used ot cost about the same as a Buick; but sales actually increased greatly as prices rose steeply.
I forget what this phenomenon is called ("Inverse something or other") but the BMW example is frequently cited in econ texts.
You could also read Veblin's Theory of the Leisure Class