The odd thing is that Raul's native language is Spanish, or I assume it to be. In Spanish and other Romance languages, the verb usually does not come last in a sentence. Truth be told, I usually understand Raul, but I did not understand all the nuances of his latest diatribe against me, as noted above. I just tried to get the gist of it.
What Raul was saying is:
I (LewM) cannot hear the differences afforded by exact proper alignment, because:
(1) I use "tubes". (Note that he is essentially incorrect regarding my Beveridge system.)
(2) Raul once owned an underhung tonearm (the RS Labs RS-A1). He didn't like it.
(2) I am not a trained listener, as he is. None of us is trained, but Raul is trained. He trained himself.
(3) We should enjoy the "music", even though we are not worthy.
So, I ask Raul or anyone else to produce data to support his underlying assumption that proper alignment according to one of the three standard algorithms (Lofgren, Baerwald, Stevenson) produces less or lower audio signal distortion over the course of playing a typical LP than would be the case if the alignment did not conform to any of those standards. Here we have to be careful, because, as I noted, it is fairly easy to misalign the cartridge to such a degree that there are no/zero null points achieved across the entire surface of an LP. Whereas, there are probably un-documented alignments that do result in 2 null points. So, we have to decide on what alignments to compare. I have done an internet search to find out whether there is a published paper on this subject, from the AES, for example, and I don't find any. Baerwald's alignment was published in 1941!!! What one would do is to measure THD at the output of a phono stage vs time (t) from the start of play to the run-out grooves, using a test LP that encodes a single pure tone. Then plot THD vs t for two or more alignments. If alignment is critical, then THD should be minimal at the exact moment when the cantilever is tangent to the groove, etc. The time-based data could be converted to THD vs distance from outermost groove to innermost groove.
The funny thing is, I had the serendipitous experience that leads me to question the need for precise alignment using Baerwald, Lofgren, or Stevenson, only about 2 weeks ago. And it was unexpected. But I'd like to know "the truth", or a better approximation of it.
What Raul was saying is:
I (LewM) cannot hear the differences afforded by exact proper alignment, because:
(1) I use "tubes". (Note that he is essentially incorrect regarding my Beveridge system.)
(2) Raul once owned an underhung tonearm (the RS Labs RS-A1). He didn't like it.
(2) I am not a trained listener, as he is. None of us is trained, but Raul is trained. He trained himself.
(3) We should enjoy the "music", even though we are not worthy.
So, I ask Raul or anyone else to produce data to support his underlying assumption that proper alignment according to one of the three standard algorithms (Lofgren, Baerwald, Stevenson) produces less or lower audio signal distortion over the course of playing a typical LP than would be the case if the alignment did not conform to any of those standards. Here we have to be careful, because, as I noted, it is fairly easy to misalign the cartridge to such a degree that there are no/zero null points achieved across the entire surface of an LP. Whereas, there are probably un-documented alignments that do result in 2 null points. So, we have to decide on what alignments to compare. I have done an internet search to find out whether there is a published paper on this subject, from the AES, for example, and I don't find any. Baerwald's alignment was published in 1941!!! What one would do is to measure THD at the output of a phono stage vs time (t) from the start of play to the run-out grooves, using a test LP that encodes a single pure tone. Then plot THD vs t for two or more alignments. If alignment is critical, then THD should be minimal at the exact moment when the cantilever is tangent to the groove, etc. The time-based data could be converted to THD vs distance from outermost groove to innermost groove.
The funny thing is, I had the serendipitous experience that leads me to question the need for precise alignment using Baerwald, Lofgren, or Stevenson, only about 2 weeks ago. And it was unexpected. But I'd like to know "the truth", or a better approximation of it.