A new way of adjusting anti skate!

I am not at all sure I am correct, but my best explanation is that in tracing the tortuous groove, the stylus is pulled along at a "speed" dependent upon the platter speed and the distance of the styus from the spindle. The ins and outs of the groove walls however cause rapid instantaneous changes in stylus velocity, in order for it to negotiate the groove. Each instantaneous change, because it forces a change in velocity at the stylus tip, is an "acceleration". Acceleration is defined as a change in velocity, up or down. So now you have a mass (the moving mass of the cartridge) that is constantly accelerating. This would create or rather require the stylus to endure tiny forces according to Newton’s First Law of Motion (F = ma). It is those tiny Newtonian forces, which have a vector direction in the general direction of the friction force, that add to the net skating force.

Then could you explain why if you put the stylus on a glass platter or blank vinyl disc, neither of which have a tortuous groove, the skating force still occurs ? 

Sure.  Nowhere did I or anyone else say that groove tortuousity is the sole cause of the skating force.  In fact, I think it's a minor factor causing minor ups and downs of the baseline skating force, which is due to friction of the stylus in a vinyl groove. 

Skating force is due to overhang. No overhang, no skating force. That simple. This is why tangential tracking arms have no need of anti-skate. Tracking tangentially generates no skating force. 

Once there is overhang then there is skating force, but only when playing a record. This is so obvious it should go without saying. But someone keeps insisting otherwise. If the velocity is zero, there is no skating force. If there is velocity with overhang then there is skating force. Clearly then skating force is related to velocity. QED.

"No overhang, no skating force." Wrong. Underhung tonearms produce a skating force except for the one instant that the cantilever is tangent to the groove (the single null point that one can achieve with an underhung tonearm). Haven’t we been through this before? All pivoted tonearms produce a skating force. So if simplicity of the explanation of skating force is your goal (as simplicity is usually your goal), and if you don’t like "friction", then you can say "no pivot, no skating force". 

Also, for the Nth +2 time, speed of rotation per se is not a factor, once the LP is spinning.  If it were, wouldn't skating force get much worse when you play a 45 rpm LP vs  33 rpm LP? And wouldn't the skating force be much worse at the outer grooves of any LP vs the inner grooves? Please read my post a few posts up from here.  I could be wrong about how groove tortuosity adds and subtracts from the net skating force, and I would be happy if you can point out where and why.  Some things actually are complex and resist attempts to simplify.

Gentlemen, I am both enjoying and learning from this discussion. I wish that I had the mind to understand all of it. I am not joking. Discussions like this are valuable to me in other courses of mechanics. 

 It would be easy to assume one point of the discussion to be the end all, and then someone points out an overlooked fact and the discussion must either accept or deny the viability of that fact.

  Much appreciated from this reader. All the best>