4 Ohm vs. 8 Ohm, what does it mean.....

Its way toooo general, Unsound.
You can grab an example on JM Lab Electra 926 where the nominal impedance is 6Ohm but it could be dropped down to 2.5.
My Totem Forests amps have a huge and resolving bass despite their tiny size and small 6" woofer. Their nominal impedance is 8Ohms and it doesn't go bellow 6. I was driving them with Pathos TwinTowers 35W/ch with enough loudness and clarity.
I might also generalize that speakers with lower efficiency have better bass while highly-efficient horns are only good for speach or voice...?

Of course your right Marakanetz. I don't want to belabor the point, but the key words here are "gross generalization" and "usually find". I must admit that I was unsure as to whether or not I should have made the previous post. In retrospect, perhaps I shouldn't have.

Dumb question
If ohms are a measure of resistance and 8 ohms is more resistant than 4 ohms, why are 8 ohms generally easier for the amp? Wouldn't more resistance create a bigger load to the amp?
Life ain't easy being a rockhead, I tell ya

Rockead, it all depends on where larger current is drown. larger current is drown through the 4 Ohm and smaller is through the 8 Ohm. More resistance creates smaller current and thus creates "easier load" The heaviest load thus is a short circuit(0 Ohm in ideal case) when you connect with the uninsulated wire two binding posts per each channel of the amplifier(Don't do it at home 'cause you might damage your amp)

Ahhh, now that makes sense. Thank you Marakanetz.