Bruce (Bifwynne), looks like you and I and Anthony (Clio09) were all responding at the same time. Great minds think alike! The one very slight qualification I would make to your post is that the reference to higher frequencies being less augmented relative to the bass when the speaker is driven by an amp having lower output impedance depends, of course, on how the impedance of the particular speaker varies as a function of frequency. Although the impedance behavior implicit in your statement is a common one.
Best,
-- Al
Best,
-- Al