If the amps have 2 very different input impedances, say 20K and 60K and they have equal gain, won't the output volume be different also because of the impedance being un-equal?No.
If the two preamp outputs are not separately buffered, the inputs of the two amps will see the same input voltages at all times, because they will be driven from a point that is the same from an electrical standpoint.
If the two preamp outputs are separately buffered, and both power amps have much higher input impedances than the preamp output impedance (which is the relationship that should be provided anyway, in any preamp-to-power amp interface), the difference in power amp input impedances will not result in a significant difference between the voltages that are input to the two amps. "Much higher" in this context would mean perhaps 20x or more, relative to the worst case (maximum) preamp output impedance across the audible spectrum.
Best regards,
-- Al