Which is more accurate: digital or vinyl?


More accurate, mind you, not better sounding. We've all agreed on that one already, right?

How about more precise?

Any metrics or quantitative facts to support your case is appreciated.
128x128mapman
I'm well aware of this phenomena. In a test I could not hear over 17,000Hz, but I can perceive at least to 20 KHz; which is why I have a tweeter that goes that high.

I can tell the difference when someone has a tweeter that only goes to 18 KHz, but I can't quite explain it.
Learsfool, it has to be "harmonics". People only think of harmonics going up the ladder, but I reason that if they go up the ladder, they have to come down the ladder as well.
Orpheus10, are you suggesting that the brain can somehow fill in the mathematical missing rungs (gaps) of the harmonic ladder? If so, it does seem somewhat plausible. If not, then what? Please accept my apologies if I'm going too off topic here.
No, you're absolutely correct.

When I got my FCC license, I thought I knew everything; working with scopes, frequency meters, etc. There was nothing I couldn't measure; and then I got into high end audio. That was when I discovered those dumb "audiophiles" who didn't even know ohm's law, could hear things that I couldn't measure.

First of all, an audiophile has very good hearing. Once upon a time I said if two amps measure the same, they sound the same; of course you know I was wrong, and so it is with harmonics, we can hear in between the rungs.
In addition, harmonics are always presented as a lower frequency affecting a higher frequency, but never how higher frequencies affect lower frequencies. I'm saying these higher, inaudible frequencies affect lower frequencies. Can anyone shed light on that.