Can I bi-amp my speakers with two different amps?

I’m hoping this is an amp question.  Can I bi-amp my Revel F52s with two Mark Levinson power amps? A #331 for the top and a  #335 for the bottom.  How would I make the connections to my preamp?  Any other recommendations?
The requirement to do this simply is if they have equal gain OR a gain adjustment.
jokomo Can I bi-amp my speakers with two different amps?

Put the amp with the better controlled bass on the bass

Use this on input of the amp that's louder, so you can equalize the gains (volume)

Use a pair of these from your preamp

Cheers George

I had some Kef R from the early 90's that I would use a 200w stereo amp for the bass and a 100w amp for the top with excellent measured results. When I tried the exact same amps with the f52 the bass became thick and indistinct! really surprising as I really liked the results with a single amp. No, with the f 52 pick a single good amp or bi amp with the same model is my experience.
Thanks very much to all for input. I checked and found the gain for 331 and 335 are both 26.8db.  May try it just for giggles.
+on same amps' gain and sound character. Also check that gain of your pre added to amps one is enough for your speakers efficiency. With total gain of approx 40db+ i believe you are fine. I never tried biamping with different amps, in the past i tried it with no great results (overkill) on a B&W 803 with B&W MPA1 (4) and Denon Poa6600 (4). Pre was an ARC SP-9MKII.