Can I bi-amp my speakers with two different amps?

The requirement to do this simply is if they have equal gain OR a gain adjustment.

jokomo Can I bi-amp my speakers with two different amps?

Put the amp with the better controlled bass on the bass
https://www.av2day.com/wp-content/uploads/2014/05/biamp1.jpg

Use this on input of the amp that's louder, so you can equalize the gains (volume)
https://www.schiit.com/products/sys

Use a pair of these from your preamp
https://www.ebay.com/itm/Valab-Gold-Plated-RCA-Y-Splitter-Adapter-1-Male-to-2-Female-RCA-Adapter-1pcs/283760200309?hash=item42116d0a75:g:RXwAAOSwGBhaYNGt

Cheers George



 

I had some Kef R from the early 90's that I would use a 200w stereo amp for the bass and a 100w amp for the top with excellent measured results. When I tried the exact same amps with the f52 the bass became thick and indistinct! really surprising as I really liked the results with a single amp. No, with the f 52 pick a single good amp or bi amp with the same model is my experience.

Thanks very much to all for input. I checked and found the gain for 331 and 335 are both 26.8db.  May try it just for giggles.

Hi,
+on same amps' gain and sound character. Also check that gain of your pre added to amps one is enough for your speakers efficiency. With total gain of approx 40db+ i believe you are fine. I never tried biamping with different amps, in the past i tried it with no great results (overkill) on a B&W 803 with B&W MPA1 (4) and Denon Poa6600 (4). Pre was an ARC SP-9MKII.