Can I bi-amp my speakers with two different amps?

I’m hoping this is an amp question.  Can I bi-amp my Revel F52s with two Mark Levinson power amps? A #331 for the top and a  #335 for the bottom.  How would I make the connections to my preamp?  Any other recommendations?
I had some Kef R from the early 90's that I would use a 200w stereo amp for the bass and a 100w amp for the top with excellent measured results. When I tried the exact same amps with the f52 the bass became thick and indistinct! really surprising as I really liked the results with a single amp. No, with the f 52 pick a single good amp or bi amp with the same model is my experience.
Thanks very much to all for input. I checked and found the gain for 331 and 335 are both 26.8db.  May try it just for giggles.
+on same amps' gain and sound character. Also check that gain of your pre added to amps one is enough for your speakers efficiency. With total gain of approx 40db+ i believe you are fine. I never tried biamping with different amps, in the past i tried it with no great results (overkill) on a B&W 803 with B&W MPA1 (4) and Denon Poa6600 (4). Pre was an ARC SP-9MKII.
One of the best dynamic speakers I heard was my friends bi-amped pair of Monitor Audio Platinum PL300 he bought over from the UK
They had a pair Pass Labs XA60 on the mids and highs, as they had an easy >4ohms bass load, an Ice Power 1200as Class-D to do the bass.

Cheers George
I had a friend that did the very same thing with a 332 and 335 Levinson amps. The 332 and 335 are a little closer in power than what you are doing. 200 watts and 250 watts. He had the 335 on the base and the 332 on the mids and highs. It did sound good. Both where on their own 20 amp dedicated power line. The speakers where B@W Matrix 800  speakers.
Sad to say he end up divorced and the wife took the 332 amp in her part of the settlement.