How can a 40 watt amp outshine a 140 watt amp


My query is; I see $6,000 integrated amplifiers with 40 watts per channel, how is this better than my Pionner Elite SC-35 @ 140 watts per channel, what am I going to hear different, with a, let's say Manley Labs - STINGRAY II? I obviously don't understand the basics involved and if someone could explain or point me in the right direction, I would greatly appreciate it.

I would like to set up a nice two channel analog system. I really can't afford the aforementioned Stingray, what is "out there" in the 2.5 grand range?
mystertee
Schipo I only have 1 problem with Mr Clarks conclusions. That being he may have been comparing 2 very closely types of amps. I would like to see the results of comparing something like my Bryston B100 and my Octave V70SE. To me there is no comparison and the differences are (punch you in the nose) obvious. Granted the msrp of my Bryston was 5k vs 7k for my Octave.

So my stance stays - There is a great deal of differences with just the amp BUT speakers - source and ROOM make a huge difference. I think I have heard that referred to as system synergy. I'm just trying to answer Mystertee's question with what I have experienced not what someone else thinks. I don't mean to knock your reply because I agree with most of your previous posts.
Xti16: thank you for your reply to The Richard Clark Amp Challenge. I find it interesting reading and I myself believe that in all probability that in real world. Most and that's including myself. At normal listening,can not tell the difference between the much more expensive from the budget.Its a great possibility at clipping I would? I thank you all and only posted to keep the conversation going.
Interesting reading about Richard Clark's test, BUT does that mean the amps sounded the BEST they could be. In other words, does makeing two amps sound the same result in equally bad or good sound?
I believe in an additional objection to the Richard Clark test method.

The Speaker.

All speakers certainly do not react the same to all loads. I'm not even talking the difference between speakers which have a preference to current or voltage source amps.
Many speakers have wacky characteristics and huge phase swings, even if impedance would appear to be within reason. Worst case? Combine a phase shift of 50 or 60 degrees with an impedance dip to say.....3 ohms. Low power amps or amps which don't like this kind of behavior need not apply. Even if a tube amp would meet Clark's criteria, I'm sure if you compared a heavily capacitive speaker, you'd notice a difference.

Perhaps, when running within limits amps do sound alike, but for some amps and speaker combinations, those limits are either at low levels or maybe even frequency limited. I'd love to hear my panels with 6 or 8 SET watts.

And finally, while I hate to drag Bob Carver into this, I think he demonstrated differences between amps based on Transfer Function. He would somehow connect 2 amps to the same speaker. Any sound the speaker made was the DIFFERENCE between the amplifiers transfer function. After adjustment, the speaker would 'null' and at least for THAT speaker, the amps could be considered identical.

And Xti, the difference between 5k and 7k is negligible. Any manufacturer should be pretty much able to do their best work for that kind of money. Toss something like 700$s worth of Onkyo A-9555 into the mix and see what'cha get. You can probably get the Onkyo for what would amount to a TRUE nutty hi-end guy's pocket change.
Once upon a time, I’ll bet that arguments asserting that the world was flat were nothing less than academical blockbusters. Why are we still debating this? if you can’t hear a difference between amplifiers, then there isn’t any....and you’re deaf!