Learsfool, as I see it an audio system can introduce harmonics, enhance harmonics, or even reduce harmonics that may be present in the source material.
Harmonics can, and to some degree inevitably will, be introduced by the system in the form of distortion products.
They can be enhanced either by virtue of a frequency response emphasis that happens to occur at a frequency corresponding to some harmonic (multiple) of the fundamental frequency of a note, or by virtue of a frequency response dip that happens to occur at the fundamental frequency, or by virtue of distortion of the fundamental frequency of a note, the distortion products therefore occurring at the same frequencies as harmonics that may be present in the note.
They can be reduced by the converse of those frequency response effects, or by introduction of a distortion product that is out of phase with a harmonic that may be present in the note at the same frequency.
As I understand it, to cite an example, a violin playing a note whose fundamental frequency is say 1 kHz will produce very audible harmonics at 2 kHz, 3 kHz, and other higher multiples of 1 kHz. A flute playing a note whose fundamental frequency is also 1 kHz will produce very audible harmonics at those same multiples of 1 kHz. The reason that the note produced by the flute will sound different than the note produced by the violin is that the relative amplitudes of those harmonics will be in different proportions.
And, similarly, differences in timbre and tone between two different playings of the same note on the same instrument will be the result of differences in the relative amplitudes of those harmonics, as I understand it.
Best regards,
-- Al
Harmonics can, and to some degree inevitably will, be introduced by the system in the form of distortion products.
They can be enhanced either by virtue of a frequency response emphasis that happens to occur at a frequency corresponding to some harmonic (multiple) of the fundamental frequency of a note, or by virtue of a frequency response dip that happens to occur at the fundamental frequency, or by virtue of distortion of the fundamental frequency of a note, the distortion products therefore occurring at the same frequencies as harmonics that may be present in the note.
They can be reduced by the converse of those frequency response effects, or by introduction of a distortion product that is out of phase with a harmonic that may be present in the note at the same frequency.
I'm just saying that there is a whole lot more to do with that than amplitudes of individual harmonics within the overall timbre - again, these harmonics are inaudible to far more than 99.9% of us.I respectfully disagree. My understanding is that timbre and the relative amplitudes of individual harmonics are one and the same.
As I understand it, to cite an example, a violin playing a note whose fundamental frequency is say 1 kHz will produce very audible harmonics at 2 kHz, 3 kHz, and other higher multiples of 1 kHz. A flute playing a note whose fundamental frequency is also 1 kHz will produce very audible harmonics at those same multiples of 1 kHz. The reason that the note produced by the flute will sound different than the note produced by the violin is that the relative amplitudes of those harmonics will be in different proportions.
And, similarly, differences in timbre and tone between two different playings of the same note on the same instrument will be the result of differences in the relative amplitudes of those harmonics, as I understand it.
Best regards,
-- Al