Hi Learsfool and Newbee,
ALL natural harmonics are always present in the natural timbre, so you can't introduce a new overtone that wasn't there before.
Let's say that a note includes a frequency component at 1kHz. In response to that 1kHz frequency component, the system may create distortion products at 2kHz, 3kHz, 4kHz, and any and all other multiples of 1kHz that are within the bandwidth of the system.
Let's take the 8th harmonic (8kHz) as an example. Whether the 8kHz distortion component that is created by the system, in response to the 1kHz frequency component of the note, constitutes an INTRODUCTION of a harmonic, or an ENHANCEMENT of a harmonic, depends on whether or not an 8kHz harmonic is already part of the sound that the instrument created.
If you are saying that any note produced by any instrument will naturally and invariably contain frequency components of non-zero amplitude at ALL harmonic multiples of the fundamental (lowest) frequency component of the note (and I don't know whether or not that is true), then yes, that would mean in a literal sense that the system cannot INTRODUCE a harmonic that isn't already there.
However, the system can certainly, as I see it, CREATE a harmonic, as a distortion product of the fundamental frequency of the note, irrespective of the existence of that harmonic in the original signal. If a harmonic already exists in the note at the same frequency as that newly created distortion product, then the natural harmonic and the artificial one would combine in some manner, depending on their phase relationship.
In your violin examples, yes, those overtones are of course part of what make differences in timbre. However, each individual one is indeed indistinguishable from the others to the ears of at least 99.9% of humans. It is not possible to tell which of those overtones are the ones that are different, in your example of two different playings of the same note on the same instrument. If I played the same note twice, at the same volume, on my horn, you would not be able to tell me which individual overtones were affected and how, and this is doing you the credit that you would be able to hear the difference in the timbre between the two at all - a great many audiophiles would not, especially if I tried to the best of my ability to make them exactly the same. And in the same case, it would have to be a VERY bad recording/system indeed that would distort them so much so that most people could hear it. These sorts of differences are MUCH more audible live and at very close range than they are on a recording.
Yes, certainly I would not be able to identify and describe the specific differences in harmonic structure that correspond to the differences in timbre that I may hear, at least without the aid of sophisticated instrumentation. But my point is this: For a note with a given volume, a given fundamental frequency, and what I'll refer to as a given "envelope" (duration, rise, decay, etc.), audible differences in timbre, tone, and even the basic character of the note (e.g., violin vs. flute) are the result of differences in harmonic structure (i.e., the relative amplitudes of each of the harmonics). To the extent that differences in timbre, tone, and the basic character of the note are perceivable, differences in harmonic structure are perceivable.
I don't see how that can be incorrect, because (for a given volume, fundamental frequency, and envelope) I can't envision anything other than differences in harmonic structure that could account for differences in timbre, tone, or the basic character of the note.
Best regards,
-- Al