according with that sentence a tonearm designer first needs to know the pivot to spindle distance to determine the effective length on his tonearm design?
You said that I have to forget Löfgren papers but makes no sense to me because there is the overall foundation on tonearm alignment and from there comes all the know type of alignments as: Baerwald, Bauer, Pisha, Stevenson, etc..
So, please tell me why me or any one must do that?. Don't put examples of nothing and please give a specific answer because through this thread you never give a specific answer with an explanation of why: yes or why: not.
You are reluctant one and again to avoid the Löfgren papers and just post nothing that makes reference to it:
which are your reasons not to do it? what's wrong down there?
The 3 calculations on 3 different type of alignments ( through Löfgren original papers. ) I posted showed that on each calculation the PtS distance was a variable and different on each type of aligment.
In the Löfgren his equations ( and all the other know alignments posted here: B, P, B, S. ) starts with a knowed L ( effective length ) and from here comes all the alignment variables like the PtS one that in there comes from here:
M = L - d , where L is the knowed ( fix. ) effective length, d the calculated overhang and M the PtS distance.
Please don't just tell me that I'm wrong. Tell me why, give any explanation. This is not a contest as many gentlemans here I want to learn and if you are right then: good for all of us. This is all about.
Regards and enjoy the music,
R.
Btw, forgeret about that 505. It's not the main subject in what we are discussing.
I repeat don't put examples just an explanation and please don't try ( again ) to change the subject taking a different " road ". Stay in the road!
Btw, I'm using the IEC ( not DIN. ) standard for the calculations in the original equations and through it the second solution in Stevenson ( first solution is similar as Löfgren A. ) calculated this null points:
60.325 and 117.417 , not the ones by VE not even if I choose DIN standard. Remember that accuracy is the name of the game: cero tolerance, but the point is that of these null points but about that effective length subject.
There are many internet calculators that as VE ones does not stay in focus.
The original equations are simple ones and by algebra we can do whatever we want ( I already said it 3-4 times in the thread. ).
If we want the PtS distance fixed then we can do it or if we want that the overhang stay the same with different alignments we can do it.
That's what shows all those calculators and create several misunderstood like the fleib one.
Fleib, I already did my job years ago because I had that misunderstood too.
Now you need to do your job too just from the begining with the foundation of all this subject: Löfgren explanation and equations and I'm sure you will understand it or can confirm your point.
Repeat, forgeret about manipulations of those equations or new dedicated alignments because no one can hear the level distortions changes in an accurate alignment set up.