Very basic stereo versus 5:1 question?


If you are running 5:1, does the left and right front channel get adjusted for frequency compared to listening to the same soundtrack as stereo?

The reason I ask is that I my 5:1 digital inputs just died and so I switched to running stereo. The amount of bass detail that showed up in the stereo output was much improved over what I was getting in a the 5:1 setup. This is for watching TV movies and motor racing.

The 5:1 front channel L/R is through a Bryston SP 1.7, Bryston amp to B&W 801 fronts. When I switched to stereo mode I sent the same signal to a Bel Canto DAC, the same Bryston amp and the same B&W 801 fronts.

I watch motor racing and the quality and impact of the bass is much improved in stereo mode. Missing the center channel is certainly noticeable for dialog in movies etc. So, best of both worlds would be 5:1 but with the same bass quality as I get in stereo mode.

Is there some inherent difference in the signal quality of 5:1 front information versus stereo that might account for this difference?

Any thoughts suggestions?

thanks, Mark.
mkeeton
There should not be but it really depends on the specific sources and on the configuration of your setup. I have 3 800Diamonds up front and, switching from a stereo source to the 5.1 source of the same program (e.g., from an SACD), there is no significant change in bass even though, in stereo, the center, surrounds and subs are not in use. Is it possible that your observations on 5.1 are based on DPL or some other surround synthesis app? Those can be quirky.
I notice you did post a center speaker or sub. If you are using them that could explain it. The processor bass management may be sending the bass to an "imaginary" sub. In stereo mode it is being sent to the main L and R.
Thanks. Those are both helpful to consider. I don't believe the processor is set for a sub. I wouldn't have set it up that way since I don't run a sub. But maybe in there I messed up. I will try that and see if that makes any difference.