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Bi-Amping Maggie 3.6 Questions

Hi All,

I am thinking that I want to biamp my Maggie 3.6's but have some basic "dumb" questions. I have spent quite a bit of time reading about biamping on the various sites but Know I am not technical expert on the subject:

1. if I remove the Maggie external crossover and then connect my preamp to two identical amps, with no crossover,so that one amp is connected to the speaker treble/midrange inputs and the other amp is connected to the speakers bass inputs, is that okay to do?

I am reasoning if the amplifiers have the same gain and power ratings this could be okay.

Or is this a wrong assumption because the crossover prevents high frequency info from going to the bass and low frequency info from going to the tweeter so that each part of the speaker is doing just its part?

2. My other dumb question is would there be an improvement in the sound if I really did this with two identical stereo amps and used a crossover? I realize that most Maggie owners utilize two different amps, one for the tweeter mid range and another for the bass. However misguided it may seem,I like the sound of my W4S ST1000 and thought that two of them would bring an improvement quite inexpensively.

Please set me straight on this!

Thanks,

Dsper
dsper
8 responses Add your response
timrhu
2,779 posts
 
Or is this a wrong assumption because the crossover prevents high frequency info from going to the bass and low frequency info from going to the tweeter so that each part of the speaker is doing just its part?

Yes, this is a wrong assumption for exactly the reason you state. I'm sure the tweeter on the 1.6 is not intended to run full range.
I have bi-amped with two identical amps, but not with my Maggies. I was using two PS Audio C-100s (class D amps) at the time and can't say it made any difference.
zd542
5,339 posts
 
"02-27-15: Timrhu

Or is this a wrong assumption because the crossover prevents high frequency info from going to the bass and low frequency info from going to the tweeter so that each part of the speaker is doing just its part?

Yes, this is a wrong assumption for exactly the reason you state. I'm sure the tweeter on the 1.6 is not intended to run full range."

I would definitely agree with that. You have to be really careful when you biamp because its much easier to get bad results than good ones. If you really want to biamp, I think the safest way to go would be do do a vertical biamp. You still need 2 stereo amps that are exactly the same. But instead of 1 amp for the bass panels on both speakers and the other amp on the tweeters, each amp fully powers one speaker. The connections work like this: Starting with the right channel, you would run the signal from your preamp to both inputs of 1 of the stereo amps. Then you would run a speaker cable from one channel on the amp to the bass binding posts, and another speaker cable from the other output on the same amp to the tweeter binding posts. You would then to the exactly the same thing with the left amp and the left speaker.
dsper OP
663 posts
 
Thank you for the responses!

I assumed that what I was suggesting was probably wrong and you confirmed it.

So...if you vertically biamp, you do not need a crossover if you have two identical amps, correct?
magnumpi205
504 posts
 
Cap replacement in the crossover is essential for improvement in sound. I upgraded the crossover and found a huge improvement in the continuity of the sound. Also, putting a new resistor and fuse on the crossover makes an even greater jump in performance.
I'm also using a Wyred amp.
zd542
5,339 posts
 
"So...if you vertically biamp, you do not need a crossover if you have two identical amps, correct?
Dsper (Threads | Answers | This Thread)"

Correct. Here's a link to a better explanation then the one I gave you. Its out of an owners manual for a different speaker, but all of the information applies.

"http://vandersteen.com//media/files/Manuals/3asigmanual.pdf"

The only thing I would add is that you're speakers are a more difficult load than the ones talked about in the manual I referenced, so you'll benefit more from the extra power you get using 2 amps.
almarg's avatar
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almarg
9,670 posts
 
ZD, note that the question concerns removal of the speaker's crossover.

Biamping, whether vertical, horizontal, or in any other configuration which may be imaginable, does not eliminate the need for a crossover.

If the speaker's crossover is removed, then an active (electronic) crossover must be inserted between the preamp and whatever power amplifier channels are being used to drive the high frequency and low frequency sections of the speaker. The characteristics of the active crossover would preferably and presumably be chosen to mimic the characteristics of the speaker's passive crossover.

If no crossover is used at all, among other consequences the treble driver is likely to be blown up by the bass frequencies that would be sent into it, unless the driver is protected by a fuse which succeeds in blowing first.
02-27-15: Zd542
You have to be really careful when you biamp because its much easier to get bad results than good ones.
Well said!

Regards,
-- Al
zd542
5,339 posts
 
"02-28-15: Zd542
"So...if you vertically biamp, you do not need a crossover if you have two identical amps, correct?
Dsper (Threads | Answers | This Thread)"

Sorry. I should have been more careful. I meant that he wouldn't need to use an external crossover. You would still have to leave the stock crossover in place.
dsper OP
663 posts
 
I appreciate the advice. Thanks for taking the time to explain what I am sure is basic
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