Hi, can someone explain, in "ohms for dummies" language, why a 4 ohm speaker, which has half the resistance of an 8 ohm speaker, is said to be more demanding on the amp? And the other way, why a 16 ohm speaker, with twice the resistance, is less demanding? jimspov
Simply, the lower the resistance of a speaker, the closer it is to a short (zero ohms).
EG: Like a car going up hill, the steeper the hill harder the engine has to work, if almost vertical it could blow if not built for it. In speakers v amp this means that amp has to supply current more and more the lower the speakers impedance (resistance).
Cheers George