Why not horns?


I've owned a lot of speakers over the years but I have never experienced anything like the midrange reproduction from my horns. With a frequency response of 300 Hz. up to 14 Khz. from a single distortionless driver, it seems like a no-brainer that everyone would want this performance. Why don't you use horns?
macrojack
Different / Better example........
Herman, here is a different example of a speaker that is "time aligned" but with a high order crossover. (Linkwitz/Riley I believe.)

All of the drivers are in the same polarity as well. It's easier to see the delay that the crossover imposes. But I think (dont hold me to this) it IS phase aligned.

http://www.stereophile.com/floorloudspeakers/699hales/index4.html
If you are a full wavelength behind, wouldn't that make you 360 degrees out of phase?

It would also seem logical that "out of phase" signals, regardless of cause, are less of an issue for longer wavelengths than for higher frequency discrepancies. In my case, there is no crossover of any type or description, real or imagined, above 300 hz. At the crossover point I have a wavelength of 45 inches. I correct for the 16 inches of front to rear positioning between my drivers by utilizing a half meter of time delay in my DBX. I'm not sure the difference would be very audible though.
Different / Better example........
Herman, here is a different example of a speaker that is "time aligned" but with a high order crossover. (Linkwitz/Riley I believe.)

All of the drivers are in the same polarity as well. It's easier to see the delay that the crossover imposes. But I think (dont hold me to this) it IS phase aligned.

http://www.stereophile.com/floorloudspeakers/699hales/index4.html
Macrojack, YES, that is the precise way to describe it. It is 360degrees out of phase. But if you take a snapshot in time and look at the waveform (sine waves show this best, obviously) it LOOKS like it is aligned because all of the peaks and valleys matchup.
And herein is where the marketing BS starts to really get out of control. Well, in one manner anyway.

I'm still trying to find the place on the web that helped me the most in understanding how first order filters result in zero phase shift. Haven't found it yet..........
Mapaman, I'm not the one making the claims. Ohm's web site makes some claims using some audio buzz words, but, they don't seem to be used correctly. Perhaps some evidence to support those claims might be appropriate?