Why not horns?

Different / Better example........
Herman, here is a different example of a speaker that is "time aligned" but with a high order crossover. (Linkwitz/Riley I believe.)

All of the drivers are in the same polarity as well. It's easier to see the delay that the crossover imposes. But I think (dont hold me to this) it IS phase aligned.

http://www.stereophile.com/floorloudspeakers/699hales/index4.html

Macrojack, YES, that is the precise way to describe it. It is 360degrees out of phase. But if you take a snapshot in time and look at the waveform (sine waves show this best, obviously) it LOOKS like it is aligned because all of the peaks and valleys matchup.
And herein is where the marketing BS starts to really get out of control. Well, in one manner anyway.

I'm still trying to find the place on the web that helped me the most in understanding how first order filters result in zero phase shift. Haven't found it yet..........

Mapaman, I'm not the one making the claims. Ohm's web site makes some claims using some audio buzz words, but, they don't seem to be used correctly. Perhaps some evidence to support those claims might be appropriate?

The difference is that some frequencies started before others. The delayed ones are a full cycle behind. They are still phase coherent but not time coherent.

It's not that simple. What you describe can only apply to steady state sine waves. Music is a complex wave with many frequencies starting and stopping and varying in amplitude. Different frequencies get shifted different amounts as they get rolled off so they don't line up like the original. They are not phase coherent.

I still say time alignment = time coherent. I've seen no evidence to the contrary.

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Po-Tay-To = Po-Tah-To

Let's call the whole thing off.