kijanki ,... I am generally aware of the relationship between an amplifier's output impedance and a speaker's input impedance, the latter stat which varies as a function of frequency response. What I found surprising is that Benchmark writes that if an amp has an output impedance of 1 ohm, the output level of the speaker could vary by as much as 2 db.
I own an ARC Ref 150 SE. Some years back, John Atkinson (JA) reviewed an earlier version of my amp and reported his bench test findings here:
https://www.stereophile.com/content/audio-research-reference-150-power-amplifier-measurementsJA's bench test findings report that the FR changes of Stereophile's hypothetical test speaker varied by only .8 db off the 8 ohm tap. Curiously, JA measured the Ref 150 as having an output impedance of 1 ohm. FWIW, ARC reports that the Ref 150 has a DF of 14, which permits the inference that the amp's output impedance is .57 ohms (or 8 divided by 14).
I know you are a techie. Can you please explain why there appears to be a difference between JA's findings and the Benchmark report.
Perhaps Atmasphere (Ralph) or Almarg (Al) can weigh in if they catch this thread.
Thanks
BIF