Atmasphere, How can you quantify that flat frequency response of the "voltage paradigm" is as close as it gets to obeying hearing rules, and just exactly what are these rules and who made them? How can you dismiss the flat frequency response as though it has little merit? Many manufactures of "voltage paradigm" speakers consider box and driver resonance with regard to it's impedance curve. How or why would a "voltage paradigm" speaker ignore non-clipping harmonic distortion as a frequency response variation any more or less than any other speaker? If the ear is more sensitive to this, at exactly just what levels does it become an issue? Certainly if this were the case, one could measure it and graph it in the correct context.
While one might hear differing degrees of brightness with different gear, with similar measurements, how can we definitively determine the cause?
An amplifier is not required to use loop negative feedback, to obtain constant voltage charateristics. Even if it does, judicious use can be provide benefits that outweigh the negatives. Again exactly just how much of this distortion needs to be present to become objectionable. If we can't measure it, how do we know it's there, and if we're sure how much is there, how can we presume to know it's the causation? Many users of "power paradigm" speakers use amplifiers with loop negative feed back. Some users of "voltage paradigm" speakers use amplifiers that don't use loop negative feedback.
We still haven't determined at exactly what levels of feedback "violates hearing rule". And in that many users of efficient speakers use amplifiers that use negative feedback, and that some users of less efficient speakers use amplifiers that don't use negative feedback, negates this argument with regards to why efficient speakers are best.
I would argue that deviations from flat frequency response is distortion, and can be easily heard. Again these "hearing rules" have yet to be defined as to actual tolerances. You have not explained why a "power paradigm" speaker would be more intrinsically inclined to placing a greater value on the hearing rules than "voltage paradigm" is.
I disagree with the assertion that "voltage paradigm" pays little attention to hearing rules. I would argue that there are more "voltage paradigm" speakers than "power paradigm" speakers that can more closely achieve wave form fidelity.
As I've explained, the logic is not so obvious that "power paradigm" equipment is more able to obey human hearing rules, because the hearing rules haven't been quantified. Without quantification, we can't assume causation.
There has been no establishment of fact that "voltage paradigm" fundamentaly abuses hearing rules.
That higher efficiency speakers are more reactive is not a good thing. Many users of horns use amplifiers that employ feed back and some users of "voltage paradigm" speakers use amplifiers that don't employ feed back. I have heard horns used with amplifiers that claim not to use feed back sound shrill and honky, and I've heard horns with with amplifiers that don't deny the use of feed back sound shrill and honky.
My point is that one can use amplifiers without little or no feed back with less reactive drivers. A speaker with good specs can sound good. If one can measure the rules of human hearing, why aren't they?
Headphones have their place, but they hardly sound like real music.
The cross-overs typically used in a lot of horn speakers are typically incapable of producing wave form fidelity.
Thank you for your contribution(s), but I'm afraid my idea of proof requires a lot more.
