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frequency range for instrument vs speaker

http://www.independentrecording.net/irn/resources/freqchart/main_display.htm

After seeing this link in another thread, I wonder about this. Let say that you don't listen to any classical instrument/music, normal rock and pop with no heavy synthetizer, just drum, guitar, etc, it seems that there isn't really any need for speakers that go much below 40Hz, considering that the lowest instrument, the kick drum (I assume it is the same thing as bass drum?) only go down to 50Hz.
Certainly listening to this type of music via speaker that go down flat to 40Hz vs 20Hz, bottom end is certainly quite different but I am not sure what is it that I hear in the subbass area (according to the chart) that is not suppose to be there, at least according to the instrument's frequency? Does drum give out something lower than its fundamental?
suteetat
frogman
7,497 posts
 
There exists an acoustical phenomenon called "undertones". Two frequencies sounding together create a phantom tone well below the fundamental frequency of either of the original tones. Just as with "overtones" (harmonics), the presence of these undertones is a large part of what gives instruments timbral complexity, and what allows one to hear or sense the volume of the space that the instrument or voice is playing in. The sound instruments playing together or alone is a practically infinite matrix of the interactions of fundamental tones and harmonics (under and overtones). If a system cannot reproduce the lowest frequencies, the sound of instruments will definitely be impacted. How much and how important that particular aspect of sound is, is a personal call when we consider how many other things there are that affect correct record/playback.
frogman
7,497 posts
 
Ecruz, I wrote my post just after and before reading yours. Your account is a perfect example of what I described.
mapman's avatar
mapman
22,688 posts
 
Clearly a sub often if not usually makes a big difference but the existence of lower frequencies in the harmonics is not required to explain it.

Often when adding a sub, the difference can be the result of the sub being able to better deliver flat response without compression at louder volumes at even the same frequencies that the mains would have to cover otherwise, along the lines that Drew_Exckhardt explains so nicely in detail in his posts.

The chart indicates "low fundamentals" for several instruments. Not sure what that is or how different from the "fundamental". Could it be the same thing as frogman's "undertones"?

There is [url=http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Missing_fundamental]This[/url] that I found which seems relevant to the discussion.
mapman's avatar
mapman
22,688 posts
 
BEtter link:

Missing Fundamental
frogman
7,497 posts
 
****Clearly a sub often if not usually makes a big difference but the existence of lower frequencies in the harmonics is not required to explain it.**** - Mapman

Very true, but it is required when the sub is used in a purely "augment" mode as many (most) subs are used; as opposed to using the sub's internal xover, when the benefits you describe are technically as well a audibly obvious.

Another term for undertone is "difference tone".
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