Can the level of pleasure derived from music be measured?


This is a real question that I think may have a answer.

With the right probes in a brain can't changes in the pleasure

zone be measured? 

I ask because it seems to me that without this measurement

a true audiophile hierarchy can not be claimed.

Thoughts??

 

 

128x128jeffseight

@terry9 

 

Very difficult, unless you finesse the problem by tying your measurement to a known physical measure such as time.

An anthropologist set up a boom box in a jungle and invited some villagers to come and listen. When he played Mozart, they wept. When he played disposable music, they left.

All he had to do was measure the time it took for individuals to leave, and he would have solved the OP's problem.  

 

I've heard this story quite a few times, but I've done some pretty extensive searches, I have yet to find the source for this.

Do you have more information on the source for this?

I just get the idea, that this story might be apocryphal. 

@simonmoon Sorry, it was told to me by an anthropologist when I was a grad student, IIRC. So no reference.

Simonmoon,  I could simply say “lighten up”, as my comment was made partly in jest,  Now, 

**** Not all, or even the majority, of audiophiles fit into the common stereotype, i.e., audiophiles get more enjoyment from the gear, than they do the music. ****

I agree and never said otherwise.   Moreover, this supports MY contention; if the humor is to warrant this much analysis.  Built into my COMPLETE methodology (☺️) is consideration of the fact that there are many different levels of what we are trying to ascertain.  Congratulations!  You are in the top…..…gotta be at least top 20% (?).