Dertonarm,
I'm a bit lost with the concept "that the bearing of the tonearm is not able to *completely support* the resulting force towards the inner groove"
All that means to me the friction of the tonearm-bearing subtracts itself from the skate force as it is an opposed force?
If you tighten up the bearing that much so is equals the skate force, the arm will not be moved by the skate force anymore.
Where it fits into the understanding of it all I'm not sure right now.
The friction force will create a vector forces due to the arm held at the pivot and produce a resultant force - the skate force. Actually pretty simple, until you want to actually calculate what this resultant force would be.
All we know, it's pretty much proportional to the actual friction force --- that force which we usually don't know and keep guessing about.
Axel
I'm a bit lost with the concept "that the bearing of the tonearm is not able to *completely support* the resulting force towards the inner groove"
All that means to me the friction of the tonearm-bearing subtracts itself from the skate force as it is an opposed force?
If you tighten up the bearing that much so is equals the skate force, the arm will not be moved by the skate force anymore.
Where it fits into the understanding of it all I'm not sure right now.
The friction force will create a vector forces due to the arm held at the pivot and produce a resultant force - the skate force. Actually pretty simple, until you want to actually calculate what this resultant force would be.
All we know, it's pretty much proportional to the actual friction force --- that force which we usually don't know and keep guessing about.
Axel