Hi Atmasphere . . . my main point is that hi-fi speaker designers simply do not consider an amplifier to be anything other than a voltage source, and that they never have. Further, it seems obvious to me that amplifiers have historically been intended to operate as voltage sources. And please believe that I'm not categorically critizing amplifiers that deviate from this practice, but I believe that a high output impedance, as an intentional, acceptable goal, is a completely modern phenomonon that is unrelated to what all but a very few speaker designs are anticipating.
The impedance at which an amplifier produces maximum power output, again, is completely non-sequitur. When I completed the restoration on the Marantz Model 2s currently in my system, I measured the output impedance at about 0.18 ohms from the 4-ohm taps - for all intents and purposes, a voltage source. This was the only tap I measured, but let's say that the 8-ohm taps have about 0.4 ohm output impedance. I would guess that my "4-ohm" Mezzo Utopias (typical reflex cabinet) would range from about 4-15 ohms. The modification of the speaker impedance on the voltage response of the amplifier would thus be about 0.3dB from the 4 ohm taps, and about 0.6dB from the 8-ohm taps . . . very little difference between the two. My point is that even if the load is mismatched and grossly affects the maximum power output, these 1950s-era amplifiers behave overwhelmingly as a voltage source, NOT a power source or a current source - if they're operating below clipping.
If I was to look for evidence that loudspeaker designers viewed an amplifier as a current source, here's what I would expect to find: Filter values and woofer conjugates in crossover networks that are calculated with the expectation of a high source impedance. Parallel resonant networks inside crossovers to dampen the impedance peak(s) from the cabinet/port. Standard models for calculating woofer responses from Thiele/Small parameters, that include a high source impedance. A specification from a speaker manufacturer that reads something like "recommended amp output impedance: 2-6 ohms". If I've been living under a rock, please tell me, but I've NEVER seen any of the above.
I chose the Apogee as an example of voltage-source thinking because I remember it being a very capacitive load, not simply low-impedance; maybe my memory fails me. But it doesn't surprise me that a capacitive speaker could sound nice from a high output impedance SET amp, for a couple of reasons. First, there's nothing like a high output impedance to keep an amplifier within its optimum current range . . . in the same way as a series resistor! Ditto for avoiding stability issues that many amps exhibit into capacitive loads. And third, I could easily see a capacitive load causing a resonant peak in the output transformer that might kinda offset the Ohm's-law HF rolloff. But again, I don't think the Apogee designers were anticipating these conditions.
Anyway, I find this interesting because there are so many "high-end" speakers out there that leave me scratching my head as to why they don't sound good to me at all, and I wonder if this is the way they're "supposed" to sound.