Quick follow-up to my last post. As I recall, some time back, one or more of our EE audio tech members commented that a DF of more than 20 DF doesn't add much acoustic benefit. I think a DF of 20 correlates to an output impedance of .4 ohms.
In late 2011 or sometime in 2012, ARC released a new Referance tube amp, the Ref 150. This baby has a 1000 joule power supply, which I assume is a lot. In addition, the ARCDB web site says the Ref 150 uses 14 db of NF and has a DF of 17, the later stat getting close to the DF factor of 20 mentioned above.
Synthesizing all of this at a high level, what I understand is that lowering output impedance much beyond .4 ohms may yield little benefit. However, at .4 ohms or lower, the amp (be it tube or SS) will behave like a Voltage Paradigm amp and be better able to compensate for the changing impedances values of a speaker in a way the designer intended. Hence, using the Ref 150 as an example, can one expect that it might do a fair job handling a speaker that was designed to be driven by a tube amp, even if the speaker does not have tube friendly impedance curves and negative phase angles??
I suspect I'm probably mixing and matching concepts here, but hopefully you can untangle what I just wrote in this post.
Thanks again.
In late 2011 or sometime in 2012, ARC released a new Referance tube amp, the Ref 150. This baby has a 1000 joule power supply, which I assume is a lot. In addition, the ARCDB web site says the Ref 150 uses 14 db of NF and has a DF of 17, the later stat getting close to the DF factor of 20 mentioned above.
Synthesizing all of this at a high level, what I understand is that lowering output impedance much beyond .4 ohms may yield little benefit. However, at .4 ohms or lower, the amp (be it tube or SS) will behave like a Voltage Paradigm amp and be better able to compensate for the changing impedances values of a speaker in a way the designer intended. Hence, using the Ref 150 as an example, can one expect that it might do a fair job handling a speaker that was designed to be driven by a tube amp, even if the speaker does not have tube friendly impedance curves and negative phase angles??
I suspect I'm probably mixing and matching concepts here, but hopefully you can untangle what I just wrote in this post.
Thanks again.