Jazz for aficionados

If the Berlin Philharmonic is playing Beethoven's Ninth and the Austin, Texas symphony is playing Beethoven's Ninth, are they using identical scores?

Cheers

Ok, are you referring to the score in terms of the music (notes) written in it, or in terms of the visual APPEARENCE of the notes? If you mean the music, yes they would be identical. Berlin, being a major orchestra probably owns a set of score and parts. Austin, probably not and would rent a set from the publisher.

Now, I made the distinction between the music and the appearance of the score because some works are published by more than one publisher (public domain) while others (mainly contemporary works) are given publishing rights to one single publisher. When there is more than one publisher, the parts will look different as far as the type and size of print font used, size of the page, type of paper etc. But, the MUSIC (the NOTES) will be identical with, possibly, some very minor "corrections" of a wrong note or two. In fact, and ironically, some orchestras have owned their set for so long that the score and parts can be pretty beat up with countless penciled-in markings by different players made over the years to indicate a particular conductor's tempo and phrasing wishes, personal reminders about various musical considerations and everything from bowings for the strings (ever wonder how an entire string section bows up or down at the same time?) to sometimes hysterically funny commentary or "art work" about a hated guest conductor or colleague. This is the reason that most rental sets have a sticker on the score and individual parts stating that any markings must be made in pencil and erased before returning the set to the publisher; otherwise a fee will be billed for cleaning up the parts. Still, many of the markings remain or are not erased fully before going from Berlin to Austin and the Texans may get to see some markings or commentary in German.

The Frogman:

Thanks for an excellent answer. You just could be the most valuable resource on all of Audiogon.

Can we now say that any difference heard between Berlin and Austin would be due to the difference in the skill level of the players? That's what I was trying to determine.

Cheers

Absolutely! That, the skill level of their respective conductors and, as an extension of skill level, the stylistic identity of the players and hence the orchestra. Eventhough the traditionally strong stylistic personalities of the various orchestras has been getting homogenized in our era of globalization they still remain an obvious force. This individuality is a result of the cultural forces in a given country and the resultant training that musicians receive. Every major orchestra has a certain "sound" identity which would not be able to be expressed if the skill level of the players were not extremely high. The Berlin players are unlikely to "forget to put the meat in the Gerschnetzeltes" :-)

BTW, thanks for the kind words. There are others who are deserving; not the least of which are the music lovers.

Rok, you and Frogman can not communicate because he's speaking Spanish and you're speaking French. "Jazz", as ambiguous as that word is, is 100 times more definitive than "The Blues". Is one speaking of "jazz oriented" blues, or "Delta oriented" blues.

Miles went to Juilliard, and "John Lee" went to the juke joints and the cotton fields. Miles never got any closer to cotton than his Hanes underwear, or was that Michael Jordon; anyway you get my drift. Jazz and blues cultures are as far apart as night and day. A musicians music is intrinsically who he is. Forget about the music, simply go to "google" and compare the bios of jazz and blues musicians to see where I'm coming from. John Lee's nuts and bolts are the juke joints, cotton fields, and all the other cultural morays of African Americans from the Delta.

When you go to "google" and compare bios of musicians, you'll see where they are coming from, and where I'm coming from.

Enjoy the music.