Can the level of pleasure derived from music be measured?

This is a real question that I think may have a answer.

With the right probes in a brain can't changes in the pleasure

zone be measured?

I ask because it seems to me that without this measurement

a true audiophile hierarchy can not be claimed.

Thoughts??

jeffseight05-18-2023 5:18am

mapman Details Discussions Posts This discussion Message User 21,846 posts 05-25-2023 at 09:14pm Copy Comment URL Report Comment Edit Delete Like this: https://youtu.be/MmPh8TJu2IY
jeffseight OP Details Discussions Posts This discussion Message User 574 posts 06-07-2023 at 07:42am Copy Comment URL Report Comment Edit Delete I need to add/change the question a bit. Assuming subject A's pleasure reaction to music can be quantified on a 1-100 scale. Call it a "P" rating. Could subject A's rating have any relativity to Subject Bs rating? In other words could it be accurately said the A enjoys music more than B???
jakleiss Details Discussions Posts This discussion Message User 34 posts 07-04-2023 at 02:57pm Copy Comment URL Report Comment Edit Delete The Semantic concept of Valence measures the positive versus negative connotation of a perceptual experience. Assuming a valid and reliable measurement tool for that concept, you can measure separately for two or more different people experiencing the same music and see if the scores differ. But, the question is, how large would the difference have to be to make a difference? There's always a margin of error involved.