Can the level of pleasure derived from music be measured?


This is a real question that I think may have a answer.

With the right probes in a brain can't changes in the pleasure

zone be measured? 

I ask because it seems to me that without this measurement

a true audiophile hierarchy can not be claimed.

Thoughts??

 

 

128x128jeffseight

I would encourge folks here to set aside those intangible metrices and focus / appreciate those valueable measurements what have already existed. Prior to Erin introducing Klippel’s Near-Field Scanner to this community, direct measures for soundstage were almost non-existant based on my limited knowledge (correct me if I am wrong pls). But looking at the plots he provides on horizontal and vertical polar SPL, we immediately see how wide and how tall the soundstage a particular speaker / driver could actually provide. The lateral and vertical dispersion (aka waterfall) plots might serve similar purpose but I got to admit that I was not able to comprehend and relate those to soundstage as easily as these global polar plots. Let us treasure what we have and worry less about those intangible ones.  I will also be highly interested in how one could capitalize these to come up with a measure for the soundstage depth.

Post removed 

 I need to add/change the question a bit.

Assuming subject A's pleasure reaction to music can be quantified 

on a 1-100 scale. Call it a "P" rating.

Could subject A's rating have any relativity to Subject Bs rating?

In other words could it be accurately said the A enjoys music 

more than B???

The Semantic concept of Valence measures the positive versus negative connotation of a perceptual experience. Assuming a valid and reliable measurement tool for that concept, you can measure separately for two or more different people experiencing the same music and see if the scores differ. But, the question is, how large would the difference have to be to make a difference? There's always a margin of error involved.