I know that wiring two speakers in parallel to one set of speaker outputs halves the impedance the amp sees. Correct? So does biwiring a speaker have the same effect on the amp? In other words, if I biwire my 8 ohm (nominal) speakers, will the amp "see" 4 ohms? Thanks.
Sorry, Bob, I was not aiming at you. I am trying to see if Zieman has some reasons for his statement that "Buffered amps and throughput (Krell) amps can see a super low impedance from the high freq posts."
Any fisrt order crossover has drivers operating over greater frequencies. Drive a tweeter at 300 cycles and report back with your findings. Blown tweeter or amplifier? A buffered or throughput amp has no connection with any part of a crossover as is "normal", so depending on how stable the amp is determines which blows/burns first. I have blown a Krell amp this way and can think of no other brand as stable at frequencies approaching DC.
You keep saying the same thing but you still have not answered the question I keep asking. How is this any different from having the same amp drive the same speaker without biwiring? Without addressing this, your statements are not relevant to this thread.
After reading again the OP it seems I may have misinterpreted the question. Somewhere down the responses, anwsers got a bit off topic and I followed along. I have blown up a few things (luckily under warranty) and would not wish this on another member.
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