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Biwiring and impedance

I know that wiring two speakers in parallel to one set of speaker outputs halves the impedance the amp sees. Correct?
So does biwiring a speaker have the same effect on the amp?
In other words, if I biwire my 8 ohm (nominal) speakers, will the amp "see" 4 ohms?
Thanks.
rubber
kr4's avatar
kr4
3,685 posts
 
You keep saying the same thing but you still have not answered the question I keep asking. How is this any different from having the same amp drive the same speaker without biwiring? Without addressing this, your statements are not relevant to this thread.

Kal
zieman
339 posts
 
After reading again the OP it seems I may have misinterpreted the question. Somewhere down the responses, anwsers got a bit off topic and I followed along. I have blown up a few things (luckily under warranty) and would not wish this on another member.
kr4's avatar
kr4
3,685 posts
 
OK. I understand. You raised a point that could be critical in some situations but it is not germane to the issue here.

Kal
zieman
339 posts
 
Kal, Thanks for letting me slide. Low impedance is a real issue that newbies can get into trouble with. Several speaker mfgrs refuse to replace tweeters that have been burnt by unstable amps. They claim owner abuse when it is simply a matter of "I didn't know".
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