Biwiring and impedance


I know that wiring two speakers in parallel to one set of speaker outputs halves the impedance the amp sees. Correct?
So does biwiring a speaker have the same effect on the amp?
In other words, if I biwire my 8 ohm (nominal) speakers, will the amp "see" 4 ohms?
Thanks.
rubber
Any fisrt order crossover has drivers operating over greater frequencies. Drive a tweeter at 300 cycles and report back with your findings. Blown tweeter or amplifier?
A buffered or throughput amp has no connection with any part of a crossover as is "normal", so depending on how stable the amp is determines which blows/burns first. I have blown a Krell amp this way and can think of no other brand as stable at frequencies approaching DC.
You keep saying the same thing but you still have not answered the question I keep asking. How is this any different from having the same amp drive the same speaker without biwiring? Without addressing this, your statements are not relevant to this thread.

Kal
After reading again the OP it seems I may have misinterpreted the question. Somewhere down the responses, anwsers got a bit off topic and I followed along. I have blown up a few things (luckily under warranty) and would not wish this on another member.
OK. I understand. You raised a point that could be critical in some situations but it is not germane to the issue here.

Kal
Kal, Thanks for letting me slide. Low impedance is a real issue that newbies can get into trouble with. Several speaker mfgrs refuse to replace tweeters that have been burnt by unstable amps. They claim owner abuse when it is simply a matter of "I didn't know".